Tiffany Huba with some "bible truths"?
The problem for Tiffany's religion comes in when looking at the original writings of the Tanach.
EVERY pillar of the Nicene religions, oneness pentacostal, messianic, nazarene, and infamous Hebrew "Roots," crumbles when proper context is applied.
EVERY pillar of the Nicene religions, oneness pentacostal, messianic, nazarene, and infamous Hebrew "Roots," crumbles when proper context is applied.
Oh, they love their stories of three-headed gods and virgin births, but it's simply not in scripture!
Actually, nearly every aspect of Tiffany's oneness religion is based upon pure pagan influence.
The core teachings and doctrines of the Church are incompatible with the cornerstone principles declared by the Prophets of Israel, and are opposed by the most cherished tenets contained in the Jewish Scriptures.
Over the course of many centuries, the Church systematically altered the Jewish Scriptures in its authorized translations of the Bible in order to persuade its adherents that Jesus is the promised Jewish messiah. To accomplish this task, Christian translators manipulated, misquoted, and mistranslated verses in the Hebrew Scriptures so that these texts appear to be speaking about Jesus.
Although the belief in the unity of God is taught and declared on virtually every page of the Jewish Scriptures, the doctrine of the Trinity is never mentioned anywhere throughout the entire corpus of the Hebrew Bible. Moreover, this doctrine is not to be found anywhere in the New Testament either because primitive Christianity, in its earliest stages, was still monotheistic. The authors of the New Testament were completely unaware that the Church they had fashioned would eventually embrace a pagan deification of a triune deity. Although the worship of a three-part godhead was well known and fervently venerated throughout the Roman Empire and beyond in religious systems such as Hinduism and Mithraism, it was quite distant from the Judaism from which Christianity emerged. However, when the Greek and Roman mind began to dominate the Church, it created a theological disaster from which Christendom has never recovered. By the end of the fourth century, the doctrine of the Trinity was firmly in place as a central tenet of the Church, and strict monotheism was formally rejected by Vatican councils in Nicea and Constantinople.2
When Christendom adopted a triune godhead from neighboring triune religious systems, it spawned a serious conundrum for post-Nicene Christian apologists. How would they harmonize this new veneration of Jesus as a being who is of the same substance as the Father with a New Testament that portrays Jesus as a separate entity, subordinate to the Father, and created by God? How would they now integrate the teaching of the Trinity with a New Testament that recognized the Father alone as God? In essence, how would Christian apologists merge a first century Christian Bible, which was monotheistic, with a fourth century Church which was not?[2]
Challenge to Oneness Christians, Messianic Jews and Hebrew-Christians
Ready?
A "Netzari" thinking...
(It's just a sampling of a list, too. There are many more issues than this!)
Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?
Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when he’s on the cross??????
Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die for his own iniquity” – immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”
When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?
Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)
Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)
Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)
Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
Why does “forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???
Why don’t the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?
Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)
Why is Hebrews 8.9 wrong about what God said in Jer. 31.32?
Why is Hebrews 10.5 wrong about what God said in Psalm 40.6?
Why is 2 Corinthians 3 wrong about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
Why is John 19.37 wrong about what God said in Zech 12.10?
Why are Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?
Why is Romans 10.6-8 wrong about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???
Why is Romans 11:26-27 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?
Why is Matt. 12.21 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out what it really says – “He will not be disheartened or crushed until he has established justice in the earth”?
Why is Matt. 1.12 wrong about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?
Why is Matt. 2.6 wrong about what God said in Micah 5.2?
Why is Luke 4:18-19 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s son?
Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23?
How can it be possible that the holy and inspired men of the New Testament were so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?
Why doesn’t Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)
Why is Jesus wrong in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?
Why does Jesus change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 – declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)
Why do most Christian translators lie about what God said in Hosea 14.2, and change His words, “take away all iniquity… that we may present our lips as bulls” (demonstrating that prayer substitutes for sacrifice) to “… the fruit of our lips?”
Why do Christians never mention verses like Hosea 14.2 or 1 Kings 8:44-52 or 2 Sam 12:13 or Lev. 5:11-13 or Ps. 32.5 or Isaiah 6.6-7 which demonstrate that one does not need a blood sacrifice to have their sins forgiven, or verses like Proverbs 21.3 or Psalms 40.6 or Hosea 6.6 or Psalms 69:30-31 or 1 Sam. 15.22 which say clearly that God actually PREFERS other methods of atonement to blood sacrifice, or Jeremiah 7:22-23 which goes so far as to say that God NEVER EVEN COMMANDED US ABOUT SACRIFICES???
Why are there numerous stories in the torah of people who sinned, and were forgiven through prayer and repentance – WITHOUT A SACRIFICE, such as David in 2 Sam 12:13, or the city of Nineveh in Jonah – and not a single story, ever, of someone who sinned and gave a sacrifice in order to be forgiven?
How can Jesus be both the high priest (per Paul in Hebrews), who comes from the tribe of Levi, and the messiah, who comes from the tribe of Judah?
How can Jesus be the Passover lamb for the gentiles, especially the uncircumcised, if outsiders were forbidden to partake of it? (Ex. 12:43,45,48)
Why is the New Testament so concerned about the laws of the paschal lamb when it comes to the 2nd half of Ex. 12.46 (see Jn. 19.36), but not at all concerned with these laws when it comes to Ex. 12: 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,44, the first half of 46, or 48?
What good is Jesus as a sin sacrifice to the intentional sinner, since (with one exception, Lev. 6.2,3) the sin sacrifices were only for the unintentional sinner? (Lev. 4: 2,13,22,27; 5:15,18)
How can Zech. 12.10 be referring to Jesus’ crucifixion, as John 19.37 says it is, when Zechariah is clearly describing an end-time apocalyptic war that has not yet taken place?
How can Zechariah be making a “dual” prophecy, when according to the Christians, this passage refers to God being pierced? Is he going to be pierced again when he returns in glory?
When was the last supper – the seder night (the first night of passover) or the night before? (Matt. 26.17-19, Mark 14.12-16, Luke 14.7-15, John 13.1-2)
When did Jesus die – the first day of Passover or the day before? (Matt. 26, Mark 14, Luke 22, John 18.28, 19.14)
Why did God, in Jer. 31.16, tell Rachel that her children would return, if He was referring to the dead children in Matthew 2.16? Were they going to come back to life?
Why are the nations putting their hands on their mouth in Micah 7.16, much like in Isaiah 52.15? What is it that they’re seeing and being ashamed of?
Why did the church put an unnatural chapter break between Isaiah 52.15 and 53.1?
Why did the Christian translators remove the two plural references to the servant in Isaiah 53.8 and 9 and replace them with a singular form?
Why does the servant in Isaiah 53.10 have physical children (“zera”/seed) if it refers to Jesus?
If “zera” really means spiritual children in Is. 53, why do all Christians agree it means physical offspring in every other place in the bible that it is used to refer to people?
If “zera”/seed really means spiritual children, which ONE of the world’s Christians is the true child of Jesus, since according to Paul in Gal. 3.16, “seed” refers to only one person?
Why are there many clear prophecies which state that Israel is despised and afflicted, but none which say this about the messiah?
Why is the automatic Christian response to the problems of Isaiah 53 ALWAYS to quote the rabbis they otherwise despise and mock and whose writings they don’t believe in, that Jesus berated and Paul called “men who turn away from the truth” (Titus 1.14)?
Why did the disciples not understand what Jesus was talking about in Luke 18:31-34 and Mark 9:32, if it was always common knowledge among the Jews that the messiah was to suffer, die, and rise from the dead?
Why did Jesus make predictions that didn’t come true, if that’s a sure sign of a false prophet? (Math. 16:38, Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27, Deut. 18:20-22)?
Why does God the Father know something Jesus doesn’t know (Mark 13.32) if Jesus IS the Everlasting Father, and the Mighty God, according to Isaiah 9.6?
Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the word “moshiach” correctly as “an anointed one” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Daniel 9?
Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the word “ca’ari” correctly as “like a lion” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm 22.17?
Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the words “y’mei olom” correctly as “days of old” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Micah 5.2?
Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the word “bar” correctly to “cleanliness” or “purity” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm 2.12? Why is it that 5 verses earlier King David knew the correct word for “son,” but not in verse 12?
Why don’t the writers of the New Testament translate “ha’almah” as “virgin” in Proverbs 30.19, if that’s what it means? (What the four “ways” in vs. 19 have in common is that they leave no trace, as evidenced by vs. 20 that follows.)
Why did the Septuagint authors use “parthenos” in Genesis to describe Dina who had just been raped, if it means virgin according to messianic authorities?
If Isaiah 7.14 refers to the virgin birth of Jesus, via “dual prophecy” (since it obviously can’t refer to him via the context), then whose was the other virgin birth that occurred at the time of the prophecy?
* Why are there numerous prophecies about gentiles bowing and apologizing to the Jews in the last days, and admitting they (the gentiles) have been wrong, and not a single prophecy the other way around – of the Jews apologizing to the gentiles – if it is indeed the Jews who are wrong?
* Why are we commanded NOWHERE in the Jewish scriptures to believe in the messiah when he comes, if our salvation depends on it?
* Why do all the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled deal only with the PERSON of the messiah, which the Torah barely mentions, and have nothing to with the ACCOMPLISHMENTS of the messiah, which the Torah is very specific about?
* Why is it that all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things that are of no practical advantage to anyone, and do nothing to improve the quality of anyone’s life, while all of the prophecies that he did NOT yet fulfill are all things that will be of tremendous benefit to every individual on the planet, and all of mankind as a whole? (For example, how does a virgin birth that happened 2000 years ago, or Jesus’ being thirsty and being offered vinegar, or being born in Bethlehem, or being killed with a robber, or riding on a donkey, etc… help me out at all? How do any of these “fulfillments” solve a single problem in my life, or anyone’s? Yet, on the other hand, when there is world peace, and all the evil people are gone, and all the sick are healed, etc… now THERE are some messianic prophecies we can surely use. )
* Why is it that all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things that CANNOT BE PROVEN, while all of the prophecies that Jesus did NOT yet fulfill, on the other hand, are all things that COULD NOT BE DENIED IF HE HAD fulfilled them – even just ONE of them?
* Why is it that the ONLY way to fit Jesus into the torah’s messianic prophecies is through the use of extreme force? Why is one or more of the following methods ALWAYS required? 1) taking verses out of context, 2) mistranslating, 3) placing a 2,000 year gap (at least) in the middle of a verse – totally unjustified by the context – i.e. sweeping any failure of Jesus to fulfill the scriptures under the rug of the 2nd coming, or 4) making verses up? Why can’t the torah ever just ONCE mention Jesus clearly, if it’s so important that we believe in him?
ARE ALL OF THE ABOVE FACTS JUST TREMENDOUS, AMAZING, UNBELIEVABLE COINCIDENCES???????
If God changed his mind about so many crucial things He said in the Torah, as demonstrated above, and now wants us to believe in Jesus, why didn't he have the decency to come down to ALL of us, and endorse Jesus in person to make it clear to us, as he came down to all 3 million of us on Mt. Sinai to endorse Moses, to make sure we would believe in the Torah forever? (Ex. 19:9.11,17, Ex. 24.17)
Why does God break one of His own commandments, “You shall not place a stumbling block before the blind” (Lev. 19.14), since according to 2 Cor. 3.14 and 4.4 I am blind, and according to Rom. 9.32, 1 Peter 2.8, and 1 Cor 1.23, the above challenges are all part of “a stumbling stone?”
Why does God trick us, and present us with such tremendous difficulties as the above questions, and then throw us into hell for rejecting an apparent false god, who’s really not false, if “God our Savior desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth?” (1 Tim. 2.4)
Why is the Christian God such a sadist? And why do Christians expect Jews to want to embrace such a God? **
The following is taken from p. 1423 in the Stone Edition Tanakh which I have found to be the best available translation of the Jewish Scriptures that we can find today for the non-Hebrew speaking student. This great translation has the Hebrew on opposite pages and let me remind you that this is the "text" that was verified in the Qumran and Dead Sea discoveries to be substantially unchanged from the only copies known previously that dated from 900-1000 A.D. That being the case it was always assumed up to then that the Jews had "deJesusized" their Old Testament to write Jesus or any related prophecies out of their texts. The Qumran discovery proves that the older texts of these Jewish Scriptures read completely different from the LXX (Greek translation) in many places are even older than the assumed Septuagint standard. Evidently it was not the Greek which is the standard now but the Jewish Scriptures. This is of major importance for the Christian and follower of Jesus because many of the Old Testament passages can now be proven to not have been "deJesusized" by the Jews but rather "Jesusized" by those who not only translated the Hebrew Scriptures into the Greek but who later altered them and "Christianized" them. Understand that the Greek translation was not in reality designed to read Jesus into the texts but write in the solar myths of the Essene cosmic angel-Messiah. It just so happens that much of the Jesus story in the New Testament will be later modeled on this same Essene pattern. We find this "Essene Theology" in the alterations of the above verses as you can see for yourself as you now read the Hebrew Scripture from Zech 12:10 for yourself. Understand that the following is what Zechariah actually said and the above examples from the Christian Old Testaments are the "corrupted" versions.
10. I will pour out upon the house of David and upon the inhabitant of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplications. They will look toward Me because of those whom they have stabbed; they will mourn over him as one mourns over an only [child[, and be embittered over him like the embitterment over a [deceased] firstborn.
A few things we must notice. In this final war the enemies of God and Israel will battle the Jewish people. The Rabbis tell us that God's salvation of Israel in that day will be so complete that people will be astonished if even one man [Jew] is killed by the enemy (Radak). In the above Hebrew verse we find that in this battle the Jewish people will look toward YHVH and even if one of their people is killed then they (the Jews) will look toward YHVH and mourn for "those" [their own people] whom "they" [the enemy that they are fighting] have "stabbed" [killed].
Notice that Zechariah does not say that they will look upon HIM whom they pierced but rather they (the Jews) will look upon ME (God) and mourn for him. The quote in the New Testament is completely wrong!
The Hebrew of Zechariah teaches us that the looking will be directed toward God. The writer of the Gospel of John changes the pronoun and the whole meaning of the verse! Zechariah has two different people because the original prophet understood the difference between the two different pronouns. John changes it and says “look upon him whom they have pierced” (making the two different pronouns the same).
This is a blatant and purposeful misquotation of the prophet Zechariah. The Essene translators of the Prophets in Alexandria, Egypt were wrong! The writer of the Gospel of John is wrong in his quote as well?
Where is the truth?
In the Hebrew there is a clue in this verse that makes all the difference. Instead of looking upon the one pierced the correct Hebrew states that the Jewish people will look toward God concerning the “him” who is pierced. If you read our series on Isaiah 53 you will have learned that quite often the prophets referred to the corporate nation of Israel in the “singular” by using pronouns like him, he, etc. In keeping with such a literary device we again see the Jewish people are said by the prophet Zechariah to be looking toward God concerning those of their brothers who perished in the final battle after being killed by the non-Jewish nations.
Exodus 20:2-3 - The First of the Ten Commandments
“I am the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt, and of the land of slavery. You shall have no other gods before Me.” (See also Deuteronomy 5:7)
Numbers 23:19 “God is not a man that He should lie, nor a mortal that He should change His mind.”
Deuteronomy 4:11-12 “You came near and stood at the foot of the mountain while it blazed with fire to the very heavens, with black clouds and deep darkness. Then the Lord spoke to you out of the fire. You heard the sound of words but saw no image; there was only a voice.”
Deuteronomy 4:35 “You are the ones who have been shown, so that you will know that God is the Supreme Being, and there is none other besides Him!”
Deuteronomy 4:39 “Know therefore today, and take it to your heart, that the Lord, He is God in heaven above and on the earth below; there is no other!"
Deuteronomy 6:4 “Hear O Israel! The Lord is our God, the Lord is one.”
Deuteronomy 6:14 “You shall not follow other gods, any of the gods of the peoples who surround you!”
Deuteronomy 32:39 “See, now, that I, I am He - and no god is with Me...”
I Samuel 2:2 “There is none holy as the Lord: for there is none beside Thee; neither is there any Rock like our God."
I Samuel 15:29 “The Eternal One of Israel will not lie nor change His mind: for He is not a man that He should change His mind.”
I Kings 8:27 “For will God indeed dwell on the earth? Behold the heaven and heaven of heavens cannot contain Thee; how much less this house that I have built?”
I Kings 8:60 “So that all the nations of the earth may know that the Lord is God and that there is no other!”
II Kings 19:19 “Now, O Lord our God, deliver us from his hand, so that all kingdoms on earth may know that You alone, O Lord, are God.” (Psalm 113:5)
Isaiah 40:18 “To whom then will you liken God? To what likeness will you compare unto Him?”
Isaiah 40:25 “To whom will then you liken Me, that I should be his equal?” says the Holy One.
Isaiah 42:8 “I am the Lord, that is My name, and My glory will I not give to another. Neither My praise to graven images!”
Isaiah 43:10-11 “You are My witnesses,” declares the Lord, “and My servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe Me and understand that I am He. Before Me no god was formed, nor will there be one after Me. I, even I, am the Lord, and besides Me there is no Savior.”
Isaiah 44:6-8 This is what the Lord says, Israel’s King and Redeemer, the Lord Almighty, “I am the first and I am the last; apart from Me there is no God! Who then is like Me? Let him proclaim it. Let him declare and lay out before Me...Do not tremble, do not be afraid. Did I not proclaim this and foretell it long ago? You are My witnesses. Is there any God besides Me? No, there is no other Rock; I know not one.”
Isaiah 44:24 So said the Lord, your Redeemer, the One who formed you from the womb, “I am the Lord Who makes everything, Who stretched forth the heavens alone, Who spread out the earth by Myself.”
Isaiah 45:5-6 “I am the Lord, and there is no other; besides Me there is no God... I will strengthen you...I order that they know from the shining of the sun and from the west that there is no one besides Me; I am the Lord and there is no other!”
Isaiah 45:18-19 For this is what the Lord says – He who created the heavens, He is God; He who fashioned and made the earth, He founded it; He did not create it to be empty, but formed it to be inhabited – He says: “I am the Lord, and there is no other. I have not spoken in secret, from somewhere in a land of darkness; I have not said to Jacob's descendants, ‘Seek Me in vain.’ I, the Lord, speak the truth; I declare what is right.”
Isaiah 45:21-22 “...who announced this before, who declared it from the distant past? Is it not I, the Lord, and there is no God apart from Me, a righteous God and Savior; there is none but Me. Turn to Me and be saved, all you ends of the earth; for I am God, and there is no other!”
Isaiah 46:5 “To whom shall you liken Me and make Me equal and compare Me that we may be alike?”
Isaiah 46:9 “Remember the first things of old, that I am God and there is no other; I am God and there is none like Me.”
Isaiah 48:11 “...And My honor I will not give to another.”
Hosea 13:4 “And I am the Lord your God, Who brought you out of Egypt. You shall acknowledge no God but Me, no Savior except Me!”
Joel 2:27 “And you shall know that I am in the midst of Israel, and I am the Lord your God, there is no other; and My people shall never be ashamed.”
Malachi 2:10 “Have we not all one Father? Has not one God created us? Why should we betray, each one his brother, to profane the covenant of our forefathers?”
Psalm 73:25 “Whom have I in heaven but You? And earth has nothing I desire besides You.”
Psalm 81:8-9 “Hear, O My people, and I will admonish you; O Israel, if you would listen to Me! Let there be no strange god among you; nor shall you worship any foreign god."
Psalm 146:3 “Do not put your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no salvation!”
Nehemiah 9:6 “You alone are the Lord; You made the heavens, the heavens of the heavens and all their host, the earth and all that is upon it, the seas and all that is in them, and You give life to them all, and the heavenly host bow down before You.”
I Chronicles 17:20 “O Lord, there is none like You, neither is there any God beside You, according to all that we have heard with our ears!”
The Eternal Consequences of Idol Worship
I have been told that if I don't believe in Jesus as my savior I am going straight to Hell after I die. This seems like a compelling reason for me to believe in Jesus particularly since I have also been told that there is no consequence within Judaism if I believe in Jesus. Therefore, I have nothing to lose by believing in Jesus, so why shouldn't I believe in him as my savior?
Answer: Actually, belief in Jesus is a horrendous sin with grave consequences for any Jew who professes to do so. To understand this let us look at the tragic apostasy of the Northern Kingdom of Israel and its dominant tribe, Ephraim. God, speaking through the prophet Hosea declares, "When Ephraim spoke with trembling, he became exalted in Israel; but when he became guilty through Baal, he died" (Hosea 13:1). When they served God, Ephraim was "exalted," but when they became guilty of idol worship and remained unrepentant despite prophetic warnings to cease their sinful ways they signed their own death warrant. Ephraim died a spiritual death long before it suffered national destruction.
From the prophetic message we learn that apostates, even during their lifetime are reckoned as dead as long as they remain unrepentant. The prophet not only denounces belief in molten images fashioned by craftsmen, but also those who trust in a false savior- god: "And I am the Lord your God from the land of Egypt, and gods beside Me you should not know, and there is no savior but Me" (Hosea 13:4).
God desires the apostate's repentance and beckons him/her to renounce iniquity: "From the clutches of the grave I would ransom them, from death I would redeem them, I will be your words of death; I will decree the grave upon you. Remorse shall be hidden from My eyes" (Hosea 13:14).
For the apostate who does not repent, God says, "I will decree the grave upon you." In a more literal sense, "I will be the cause of your being cut off to the grave." Katavcha, from the verb ketev, denotes "cutting" (e.g. Psalms 91:6). Its primary meaning is "to cut," but in Hosea 13:14, ketev takes on the secondary meaning "decree." In Hebrew, the primary word for decree is gezayra, the root of which is gezer, "to cut." There are a number of word roots in Hebrew whose primary meaning is "cutting," yet have a secondary meaning of a final, permanent decision or ruling (e.g., pasak, chakak, gezer, charatz, karat).
As we see, the belief in the false savior-god Jesus is a grave sin. The unrepentant apostate is not only shunned and considered dead by the Jewish community. God Himself considers the unrepentant apostate as spiritually dead in this life and in physical death the apostate is all the more so "cut off."[3]
Read more at http://truetwistianity.blogspot.com/2013/05/the-eternal-consequences-of-idol-worship.html#bRAebPsufZtC2zoB.99
COMPARING ZECH. 12:10 FROM THE JEWISH HEBREW BIBLE WITH THE CHRISTIAN OLD TESTAMENT...YOU WILL BE AMAZED AT WHAT YOU SEE
If you compare Zechariah in your Christian Bible with the Hebrew Zechariah in the Jewish Bible you will find that the Prophet Zechariah in the Jewish Bible says “they will look upon ME and mourn for HIM.”The following is taken from p. 1423 in the Stone Edition Tanakh which I have found to be the best available translation of the Jewish Scriptures that we can find today for the non-Hebrew speaking student. This great translation has the Hebrew on opposite pages and let me remind you that this is the "text" that was verified in the Qumran and Dead Sea discoveries to be substantially unchanged from the only copies known previously that dated from 900-1000 A.D. That being the case it was always assumed up to then that the Jews had "deJesusized" their Old Testament to write Jesus or any related prophecies out of their texts. The Qumran discovery proves that the older texts of these Jewish Scriptures read completely different from the LXX (Greek translation) in many places are even older than the assumed Septuagint standard. Evidently it was not the Greek which is the standard now but the Jewish Scriptures. This is of major importance for the Christian and follower of Jesus because many of the Old Testament passages can now be proven to not have been "deJesusized" by the Jews but rather "Jesusized" by those who not only translated the Hebrew Scriptures into the Greek but who later altered them and "Christianized" them. Understand that the Greek translation was not in reality designed to read Jesus into the texts but write in the solar myths of the Essene cosmic angel-Messiah. It just so happens that much of the Jesus story in the New Testament will be later modeled on this same Essene pattern. We find this "Essene Theology" in the alterations of the above verses as you can see for yourself as you now read the Hebrew Scripture from Zech 12:10 for yourself. Understand that the following is what Zechariah actually said and the above examples from the Christian Old Testaments are the "corrupted" versions.
10. I will pour out upon the house of David and upon the inhabitant of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplications. They will look toward Me because of those whom they have stabbed; they will mourn over him as one mourns over an only [child[, and be embittered over him like the embitterment over a [deceased] firstborn.
A few things we must notice. In this final war the enemies of God and Israel will battle the Jewish people. The Rabbis tell us that God's salvation of Israel in that day will be so complete that people will be astonished if even one man [Jew] is killed by the enemy (Radak). In the above Hebrew verse we find that in this battle the Jewish people will look toward YHVH and even if one of their people is killed then they (the Jews) will look toward YHVH and mourn for "those" [their own people] whom "they" [the enemy that they are fighting] have "stabbed" [killed].
Notice that Zechariah does not say that they will look upon HIM whom they pierced but rather they (the Jews) will look upon ME (God) and mourn for him. The quote in the New Testament is completely wrong!
The Hebrew of Zechariah teaches us that the looking will be directed toward God. The writer of the Gospel of John changes the pronoun and the whole meaning of the verse! Zechariah has two different people because the original prophet understood the difference between the two different pronouns. John changes it and says “look upon him whom they have pierced” (making the two different pronouns the same).
This is a blatant and purposeful misquotation of the prophet Zechariah. The Essene translators of the Prophets in Alexandria, Egypt were wrong! The writer of the Gospel of John is wrong in his quote as well?
Where is the truth?
In the Hebrew there is a clue in this verse that makes all the difference. Instead of looking upon the one pierced the correct Hebrew states that the Jewish people will look toward God concerning the “him” who is pierced. If you read our series on Isaiah 53 you will have learned that quite often the prophets referred to the corporate nation of Israel in the “singular” by using pronouns like him, he, etc. In keeping with such a literary device we again see the Jewish people are said by the prophet Zechariah to be looking toward God concerning those of their brothers who perished in the final battle after being killed by the non-Jewish nations.
The Hebrew, when taken from the Hebrew
Bible (not a Christian Old Testament), reads different from the
English Old Testaments in the Christian Bible: “They (Jews) will
look to me (God)……concerning whom (the Jewish slain) they
(Gentile armies) have pierced…….
This is a major difference than what
John reports. John quotes as if they are looking upon “him” who
they pierced. John sees the two pronouns merged into one individual.
They look toward who they pierced. The Hebrew from which he
supposedly quoted does not say that. Instead of the Jewish people
looking on the one pierced, they are looking toward God concerning
those of their countrymen who were killed by the Gentile armies. To
believe John’s misquote is wrong for the reading from John 19 is
not what the Hebrew says!
Answer for yourself: Why can't John
quote the Hebrew of Zechariah correctly?
Answer for yourself: But more to the
point, why does not the Old Testament of our Christian Bibles have it
correct?
Answer for yourself: Who is responsible
for misquoting the Hebrew of Zechariah in our Christian KJV Bibles?
Remember John is supposed to be a Jew
and well familiar with his own Jewish Scriptures. Such a one would
not make such a gross mistake in mistranslating his own Scriptures.
Certainly if John were a Jew he would be most familiar with the
ultimate warning as follows:
Deut 4:2
2 Ye shall not add unto the word which
I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may
keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you. (KJV)
Exod 32:33
33 And the LORD said unto Moses,
Whosoever hath sinned against me, him will I blot out of my book.
(KJV)
Knowing these two Jewish Scriptures,
and expecting John to know then as well, then I have always struggled
to understand why a Jew cannot or would not quote his own Scripture
correctly.
Answer for yourself: Don’t you find
that troubling as well?
The
Challenge: Simply & honestly answer these questions: WITHOUT
taking anything out of context,(full context) mistranslating, or
imposing a pre-conceived notion. (All chapter and verse numbers are
according to Christian bibles.)
To Evangelical Christians, Messianic Jews and Hebrew-Christians to all…:)
Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?
Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when he’s on the cross??????
Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die for his own iniquity” – immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”
When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?
Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)
Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)
Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)
Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
Why does “forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???
Why don’t the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?
Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)
Why is Hebrews 8.9 wrong about what God said in Jer. 31.32?
Why is Hebrews 10.5 wrong about what God said in Psalm 40.6?
Why is 2 Corinthians 3 wrong about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
Why is John 19.37 wrong about what God said in Zech 12.10?
Why are Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?
Why is Romans 10.6-8 wrong about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???
Why is Romans 11:26-27 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?
Why is Matt. 12.21 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out what it really says – “He will not be disheartened or crushed until he has established justice in the earth”?
Why is Matt. 1.12 wrong about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?
Why is Matt. 2.6 wrong about what God said in Micah 5.2?
Why is Luke 4:18-19 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s son?
Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23?
How can it be possible that the holy and inspired men of the New Testament were so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?
Why doesn’t Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)
Why is Jesus wrong in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?
Why does Jesus change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 – declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)
To Evangelical Christians, Messianic Jews and Hebrew-Christians to all…:)
Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?
Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when he’s on the cross??????
Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die for his own iniquity” – immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”
When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?
Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)
Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)
Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)
Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
Why does “forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???
Why don’t the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?
Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)
Why is Hebrews 8.9 wrong about what God said in Jer. 31.32?
Why is Hebrews 10.5 wrong about what God said in Psalm 40.6?
Why is 2 Corinthians 3 wrong about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
Why is John 19.37 wrong about what God said in Zech 12.10?
Why are Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?
Why is Romans 10.6-8 wrong about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???
Why is Romans 11:26-27 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?
Why is Matt. 12.21 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out what it really says – “He will not be disheartened or crushed until he has established justice in the earth”?
Why is Matt. 1.12 wrong about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?
Why is Matt. 2.6 wrong about what God said in Micah 5.2?
Why is Luke 4:18-19 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s son?
Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23?
How can it be possible that the holy and inspired men of the New Testament were so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?
Why doesn’t Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)
Why is Jesus wrong in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?
Why does Jesus change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 – declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)
Exodus 20:2-3 - The First of the Ten Commandments
“I am the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt, and of the land of slavery. You shall have no other gods before Me.” (See also Deuteronomy 5:7)
Numbers 23:19 “God is not a man that He should lie, nor a mortal that He should change His mind.”
Deuteronomy 4:11-12 “You came near and stood at the foot of the mountain while it blazed with fire to the very heavens, with black clouds and deep darkness. Then the Lord spoke to you out of the fire. You heard the sound of words but saw no image; there was only a voice.”
Deuteronomy 4:35 “You are the ones who have been shown, so that you will know that God is the Supreme Being, and there is none other besides Him!”
Deuteronomy 4:39 “Know therefore today, and take it to your heart, that the Lord, He is God in heaven above and on the earth below; there is no other!"
Deuteronomy 6:4 “Hear O Israel! The Lord is our God, the Lord is one.”
Deuteronomy 6:14 “You shall not follow other gods, any of the gods of the peoples who surround you!”
Deuteronomy 32:39 “See, now, that I, I am He - and no god is with Me...”
I Samuel 2:2 “There is none holy as the Lord: for there is none beside Thee; neither is there any Rock like our God."
I Samuel 15:29 “The Eternal One of Israel will not lie nor change His mind: for He is not a man that He should change His mind.”
I Kings 8:27 “For will God indeed dwell on the earth? Behold the heaven and heaven of heavens cannot contain Thee; how much less this house that I have built?”
I Kings 8:60 “So that all the nations of the earth may know that the Lord is God and that there is no other!”
II Kings 19:19 “Now, O Lord our God, deliver us from his hand, so that all kingdoms on earth may know that You alone, O Lord, are God.” (Psalm 113:5)
Isaiah 40:18 “To whom then will you liken God? To what likeness will you compare unto Him?”
Isaiah 40:25 “To whom will then you liken Me, that I should be his equal?” says the Holy One.
Isaiah 42:8 “I am the Lord, that is My name, and My glory will I not give to another. Neither My praise to graven images!”
Isaiah 43:10-11 “You are My witnesses,” declares the Lord, “and My servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe Me and understand that I am He. Before Me no god was formed, nor will there be one after Me. I, even I, am the Lord, and besides Me there is no Savior.”
Isaiah 44:6-8 This is what the Lord says, Israel’s King and Redeemer, the Lord Almighty, “I am the first and I am the last; apart from Me there is no God! Who then is like Me? Let him proclaim it. Let him declare and lay out before Me...Do not tremble, do not be afraid. Did I not proclaim this and foretell it long ago? You are My witnesses. Is there any God besides Me? No, there is no other Rock; I know not one.”
Isaiah 44:24 So said the Lord, your Redeemer, the One who formed you from the womb, “I am the Lord Who makes everything, Who stretched forth the heavens alone, Who spread out the earth by Myself.”
Isaiah 45:5-6 “I am the Lord, and there is no other; besides Me there is no God... I will strengthen you...I order that they know from the shining of the sun and from the west that there is no one besides Me; I am the Lord and there is no other!”
Isaiah 45:18-19 For this is what the Lord says – He who created the heavens, He is God; He who fashioned and made the earth, He founded it; He did not create it to be empty, but formed it to be inhabited – He says: “I am the Lord, and there is no other. I have not spoken in secret, from somewhere in a land of darkness; I have not said to Jacob's descendants, ‘Seek Me in vain.’ I, the Lord, speak the truth; I declare what is right.”
Isaiah 45:21-22 “...who announced this before, who declared it from the distant past? Is it not I, the Lord, and there is no God apart from Me, a righteous God and Savior; there is none but Me. Turn to Me and be saved, all you ends of the earth; for I am God, and there is no other!”
Isaiah 46:5 “To whom shall you liken Me and make Me equal and compare Me that we may be alike?”
Isaiah 46:9 “Remember the first things of old, that I am God and there is no other; I am God and there is none like Me.”
Isaiah 48:11 “...And My honor I will not give to another.”
Hosea 13:4 “And I am the Lord your God, Who brought you out of Egypt. You shall acknowledge no God but Me, no Savior except Me!”
Joel 2:27 “And you shall know that I am in the midst of Israel, and I am the Lord your God, there is no other; and My people shall never be ashamed.”
Malachi 2:10 “Have we not all one Father? Has not one God created us? Why should we betray, each one his brother, to profane the covenant of our forefathers?”
Psalm 73:25 “Whom have I in heaven but You? And earth has nothing I desire besides You.”
Psalm 81:8-9 “Hear, O My people, and I will admonish you; O Israel, if you would listen to Me! Let there be no strange god among you; nor shall you worship any foreign god."
Psalm 146:3 “Do not put your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no salvation!”
Nehemiah 9:6 “You alone are the Lord; You made the heavens, the heavens of the heavens and all their host, the earth and all that is upon it, the seas and all that is in them, and You give life to them all, and the heavenly host bow down before You.”
I Chronicles 17:20 “O Lord, there is none like You, neither is there any God beside You, according to all that we have heard with our ears!”
The Eternal Consequences of Idol Worship
I have been told that if I don't believe in Jesus as my savior I am going straight to Hell after I die. This seems like a compelling reason for me to believe in Jesus particularly since I have also been told that there is no consequence within Judaism if I believe in Jesus. Therefore, I have nothing to lose by believing in Jesus, so why shouldn't I believe in him as my savior?
Answer: Actually, belief in Jesus is a horrendous sin with grave consequences for any Jew who professes to do so. To understand this let us look at the tragic apostasy of the Northern Kingdom of Israel and its dominant tribe, Ephraim. God, speaking through the prophet Hosea declares, "When Ephraim spoke with trembling, he became exalted in Israel; but when he became guilty through Baal, he died" (Hosea 13:1). When they served God, Ephraim was "exalted," but when they became guilty of idol worship and remained unrepentant despite prophetic warnings to cease their sinful ways they signed their own death warrant. Ephraim died a spiritual death long before it suffered national destruction.
From the prophetic message we learn that apostates, even during their lifetime are reckoned as dead as long as they remain unrepentant. The prophet not only denounces belief in molten images fashioned by craftsmen, but also those who trust in a false savior- god: "And I am the Lord your God from the land of Egypt, and gods beside Me you should not know, and there is no savior but Me" (Hosea 13:4).
God desires the apostate's repentance and beckons him/her to renounce iniquity: "From the clutches of the grave I would ransom them, from death I would redeem them, I will be your words of death; I will decree the grave upon you. Remorse shall be hidden from My eyes" (Hosea 13:14).
For the apostate who does not repent, God says, "I will decree the grave upon you." In a more literal sense, "I will be the cause of your being cut off to the grave." Katavcha, from the verb ketev, denotes "cutting" (e.g. Psalms 91:6). Its primary meaning is "to cut," but in Hosea 13:14, ketev takes on the secondary meaning "decree." In Hebrew, the primary word for decree is gezayra, the root of which is gezer, "to cut." There are a number of word roots in Hebrew whose primary meaning is "cutting," yet have a secondary meaning of a final, permanent decision or ruling (e.g., pasak, chakak, gezer, charatz, karat).
As we see, the belief in the false savior-god Jesus is a grave sin. The unrepentant apostate is not only shunned and considered dead by the Jewish community. God Himself considers the unrepentant apostate as spiritually dead in this life and in physical death the apostate is all the more so "cut off."[3]
Read more at http://truetwistianity.blogspot.com/2013/05/the-eternal-consequences-of-idol-worship.html#bRAebPsufZtC2zoB.99
**This list may be copied and passed around, as long as credit is given to leeannesmailbox@aol.com, who gives at least half of the credit to Rabbi Tovia Singer.
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