"Hear an alleged tongues and interpretation where "God" says his mercy is gone, he's going to turn against someone(s) in that church and will pour out his wrath that night." @ 9:30 [1]
WARNING: GRAPHIC
“Do you believe in the baptism of the Holy Ghost with the evidence of speaking in tongues?”
The term “ghost” is a derogatory reference to the Most Holy, Blessed be He. God is not a ghost, but a Sacred Spirit Being. ‘Ghost’ applies more specifically and commonly to a ‘spook’ or phantom. God’s Sacred Spirit fills the heavens of heavens and indwells the souls of those of mankind who let Him in. The result of this indwelling varies from person to person as to the ‘amount’ of this Presence (strong or weak) and the nature or evidence of its Presence. The book of Corinthians ch 13 clearly defines this blessed feature of the “baptism of the Holy Spirit” and clearly contradicts the claims of so many Pentecostal believers that it is an ‘exclusive’ feature given to selected believers with the ‘evidence’ of speaking in tongues’. Let us look at some of these statements, after which one should read the entire chapter in context to define that the real exclusive feature of the Presence of the Holy Spirit in a person is LOVE – and then NOT the type of Love that is generally displayed in this world which gives license to illicit sex, and even murder, as the killer of Sharon Tate declared after knifing her 36 times! 1 Cor. 13:4 defines some traits of this HS Love which is often notably absent in those who insist on “tongues” as the exclusive sign. “Love does not envy, it does not boast, it is not proud. 5 It does not dishonor others, it is not self-seeking, it is not easily angered, it keeps no record of wrongs. 6 Love does not delight in evil but rejoices with the truth….”
This Love is eternal, as God is Eternal…. (v8) “…but … prophecies will cease; …tongues will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away.”
1 Cor. 1:1 “ If I speak in the tongues of men or of angels, but do not have love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal. 2 If I have the gift of prophecy and can fathom all mysteries and all knowledge, and if I have a faith that can move mountains, but do not have love, I am nothing. 3 If I give all I possess to the poor and give over my body to hardship that I may boast,[b] but do not have love, I gain nothing.”
These “strange tongue for all…”insistent ignore the clear directive given in 1 Cor. 12: 29 “Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Do all work miracles? 30 Do all have gifts of healing? Do all speak in tongues? Do all interpret? 31 Now eagerly desire the greater gifts.” (Love).
Just prior to this, the author takes great care to confirm that:
Verse 4 “There are different kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit distributes them. 5 There are different kinds of service, but the same Lord. 6 There are different kinds of working, but in all of them and in everyone it is the same God at work.
7 Now to each one the manifestation of the Spirit is given for the common good. 8 To one (NOT ALL!) there is given through the Spirit a message of wisdom, to another (NOT ALL!) a message of knowledge by means of the same Spirit, 9 to another (NOT ALL!) faith by the same Spirit, to another (NOT ALL!) gifts of healing by that one Spirit, 10 to another (NOT ALL!) miraculous powers, to another (NOT ALL!)prophecy, to another (NOT ALL!) distinguishing between spirits, to another (NOT ALL!) speaking in different kinds of tongues,[a] and to still another (NOT ALL!) the interpretation of tongues.[b] 11 All these are the work of one and the same Spirit, and he distributes them to each one, just as he determines.”
Yet, many believers insist that we all should be speaking in tongues.
Now, a teaching which normally goes hand in hand with this, is that “we are no longer under the Law”, that “Being under Law is being under the Curse” … yet many of these believers will testify of the Blessing for paying Tithes (according to the Law of Moses)!
Clearly, something drastic is wrong, apart from the fact of common sense, that God surely cannot rule the World without Law! But, this is a topic too vast to even attempt to answer here. [2]
Most never even come close to understanding and keeping the "Great Commandment." This is because most tend to redefine love in terms of their own emotional ideas or even worse, the "Hollywood" portrayals of "love." As Y'shua presented this "Great Commandment," He personally believed that it was the summation of all the commandments found in the Torah and the Prophets.
HaShem (G-d) defines "love" succinctly in His Word. Any human understanding of "love" MUST BE FOUNDED ON God's Own definition. More:
Rebbe Y'shua ("Torah Master Jesus") is among the most accomplished and misunderstood sages of Israel.
His true teachings are completely Torah consistent when understood.
The term “ghost” is a derogatory reference to the Most Holy, Blessed be He. God is not a ghost, but a Sacred Spirit Being. ‘Ghost’ applies more specifically and commonly to a ‘spook’ or phantom. God’s Sacred Spirit fills the heavens of heavens and indwells the souls of those of mankind who let Him in. The result of this indwelling varies from person to person as to the ‘amount’ of this Presence (strong or weak) and the nature or evidence of its Presence. The book of Corinthians ch 13 clearly defines this blessed feature of the “baptism of the Holy Spirit” and clearly contradicts the claims of so many Pentecostal believers that it is an ‘exclusive’ feature given to selected believers with the ‘evidence’ of speaking in tongues’. Let us look at some of these statements, after which one should read the entire chapter in context to define that the real exclusive feature of the Presence of the Holy Spirit in a person is LOVE – and then NOT the type of Love that is generally displayed in this world which gives license to illicit sex, and even murder, as the killer of Sharon Tate declared after knifing her 36 times! 1 Cor. 13:4 defines some traits of this HS Love which is often notably absent in those who insist on “tongues” as the exclusive sign. “Love does not envy, it does not boast, it is not proud. 5 It does not dishonor others, it is not self-seeking, it is not easily angered, it keeps no record of wrongs. 6 Love does not delight in evil but rejoices with the truth….”
This Love is eternal, as God is Eternal…. (v8) “…but … prophecies will cease; …tongues will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away.”
1 Cor. 1:1 “ If I speak in the tongues of men or of angels, but do not have love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal. 2 If I have the gift of prophecy and can fathom all mysteries and all knowledge, and if I have a faith that can move mountains, but do not have love, I am nothing. 3 If I give all I possess to the poor and give over my body to hardship that I may boast,[b] but do not have love, I gain nothing.”
These “strange tongue for all…”insistent ignore the clear directive given in 1 Cor. 12: 29 “Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Do all work miracles? 30 Do all have gifts of healing? Do all speak in tongues? Do all interpret? 31 Now eagerly desire the greater gifts.” (Love).
Just prior to this, the author takes great care to confirm that:
Verse 4 “There are different kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit distributes them. 5 There are different kinds of service, but the same Lord. 6 There are different kinds of working, but in all of them and in everyone it is the same God at work.
7 Now to each one the manifestation of the Spirit is given for the common good. 8 To one (NOT ALL!) there is given through the Spirit a message of wisdom, to another (NOT ALL!) a message of knowledge by means of the same Spirit, 9 to another (NOT ALL!) faith by the same Spirit, to another (NOT ALL!) gifts of healing by that one Spirit, 10 to another (NOT ALL!) miraculous powers, to another (NOT ALL!)prophecy, to another (NOT ALL!) distinguishing between spirits, to another (NOT ALL!) speaking in different kinds of tongues,[a] and to still another (NOT ALL!) the interpretation of tongues.[b] 11 All these are the work of one and the same Spirit, and he distributes them to each one, just as he determines.”
Yet, many believers insist that we all should be speaking in tongues.
Now, a teaching which normally goes hand in hand with this, is that “we are no longer under the Law”, that “Being under Law is being under the Curse” … yet many of these believers will testify of the Blessing for paying Tithes (according to the Law of Moses)!
Clearly, something drastic is wrong, apart from the fact of common sense, that God surely cannot rule the World without Law! But, this is a topic too vast to even attempt to answer here. [2]
Other religious groups have been observed to practice some form of speaking in tongues - theopneustic glossolalia. It is perhaps most commonly in Paganism, Shamanism, and other mediumistic religious practices. In Japan, the God Light Association used to practice glossolalia to cause adherents to recall past lives.
Certain Gnostic magical texts from the Roman period have written on them unintelligible syllables such as "t t t t n n n n d d d d d..." etc. It is conjectured that these may be transliterations of the sorts of sounds made during glossolalia. The Coptic Gospel of the Egyptians also features a hymn of (mostly) unintelligible syllables which is thought to be an early example of Christian glossolalia.
In the 19th century, Spiritism was developed by the work of Allan Kardec, and the phenomenon was seen as one of the self-evident manifestations of spirits. Spiritists argued that some cases were actually cases of xenoglossia.
Glossolalia has also been observed in the Voodoo religion of Haiti, as well as in the Hindu Gurus and Fakirs of India.
Learned behavior
The material explanation arrived at by a number of studies is that glossolalia is "learned behavior". What is taught is the ability to produce language-like speech. This is only a partial explanation, but it is a part that has withstood much testing. It is possible to train novices to produce glossolalic speech. One experiment with 60 undergraduates found that 20% succeeded after merely listening to a 60-second sample, and 70% succeeded after training:
Our findings that glossolalia can be easily learned through direct instruction, along with demonstrations that tongue speakers can initiate and terminate glossolalia upon request and can exhibit glossolalia in the absence of any indexes of trance[…] support the hypothesis that glossolalia utterances are goal-directed actions rather than involuntary happenings.
The admittedly fraudulent preacher Marjoe Gortner described in a 1977 interview how people learn glossolalia in a highly emotional religious setting.
"Tongues is something you learn," he emphasized. "It is a releasing that you teach yourself. You are told by your peers, the church, and the Bible – if you accept it literally – that the Holy Ghost speaks in another tongue; you become convinced that it is the ultimate expression of the spirit flowing through you. The first time maybe you'll just go dut-dut-dut-dut, and that's about all that will get out. Then you'll hear other people and next night you may go dut-dut-dut-UM-dut-DEET-dut-dut, and it gets a little better. The next thing you know, it's ela-hando-satelay-eek-condele-mosandrey-aseya ... and it's a new language you've got down."
That glossolalia can be learned is also seen in the traces left behind by teachers. An investigation by the Lutheran Medical Center in Brooklyn showed that the influence of a particular leader can shape a group's glossolalia: where certain prominent glossolalists had visited, whole groups of glossolalists would speak in his style of speech.
Kavan
found that most New Zealand Pentecostals and Charismatics did not
experience trance except during the baptism of the spirit. However,
meditators in a yoga-based purification group experienced frequent
intense trances, of which glossolalia was an occasional
manifestation. Kavan suggested that there are two types of
glossolalia – spontaneous and context-dependent – and the former
is more likely to occur in groups that are radical, experiential and
charismatically led.
"Apostolic by Faith. Pentacostal by Experience"? See The Six Constant Mitzvahs
Remember the verses in Scripture that speak of The “Falling Away” when some will give “Heed to Deceiving Spirits And Doctrines Of Demons? Well THAT DAY IS ALREADY HERE. We have lost all rights to call ourselves Christians by our Counterfeit Revivals and our wholesale adoption of doctrines and practices DIRECTLY derived from the occult...Tongues, The Word of Faith Movement, Labyrinths, Contemplative Prayer, Slain In The Spirit and Santa Claus.
See: 5 New Testament Questions that virtually all Christian Ministers are unable to answer correctly according to the Bible:
1: How does the Scriptures define our Love for God?
2: How do we know that we know the true God?
3: How do we know that we love the Children of God?
4: The New Covenant pertains to whom; The House of Judah, The House of Yisrael, or the Church?
5: How do we enter into eternal life?
# 1. How does the Scriptures define our Love for God?
Much has been spoken and written about the subject of "love." The greatest statement about "love" is the "Great Commandment." Its two commands revolve around practicing "love." The Great Commandment is found in several places. Matthew 22:37-40 is one of the most complete presentations.
Mat 22:36 "Rabbi, which of the mitzvot in the Torah is the most important?"
Mat 22:37 He told him, "`You are to love ADONAI your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength.'
Mat 22:38 This is the greatest and most important mitzvah.
Mat 22:39 And a second is similar to it, `You are to love your neighbor as yourself.'
Mat 22:40 All of the Torah and the Prophets are dependent on these two mitzvot." (Commandments)
Most never even come close to understanding and keeping the "Great Commandment." This is because most tend to redefine love in terms of their own emotional ideas or even worse, the "Hollywood" portrayals of "love." As Y'shua presented this "Great Commandment," He personally believed that it was the summation of all the commandments found in the Torah and the Prophets.
HaShem (G-d) defines "love" succinctly in His Word. Any human understanding of "love" MUST BE FOUNDED ON God's Own definition. More:
Rebbe Y'shua ("Torah Master Jesus") is among the most accomplished and misunderstood sages of Israel.
His true teachings are completely Torah consistent when understood.
This is a series of videos [below] to challenge people to search the scriptures, to see if what they were taught is actually in the Bible. Many of us heard things said over and over, so much so that we started believing the Bible verses were there. Sometimes we neglected to check. Other times we read things into a verse or pieced together passages to make a doctrine.
This video challenges you to see if you can find the phrase in the Bible, "with the evidence of speaking in tongues."
Scriptures:John the Apostle is known as "the apostle of love" (John 13:23). He understood Biblical "love" better than most. Yeshua used Yochanan (John) as the primary human author in His Word to define "love." Consider and ponder what God says through John:
Joh 14:15 "If you love me, you will keep my commands;
Joh 14:21 Whoever has my commands and keeps them is the one who loves me, and the one who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I will love him and reveal myself to him."
Joh 14:23 Yeshua answered him, "If someone loves me, he will keep my word; and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him.
Joh 15:10 If you keep my commands, you will stay in my love -- just as I have kept my Father's commands and stay in his love.
1Jn 2:5 But if someone keeps doing what he says, then truly love for God has been brought to its goal in him. This is how we are sure that we are united with him.
1Jn 5:2 Here is how we know that we love God's children: when we love God, we also do what he commands.
1Jn 5:3 For loving God means obeying his commands. Moreover, his commands are not burdensome,
2Jn 1:6 Moreover, love is this: that we should live according to his commands. This is the command, as you people have heard from the beginning; live by it!
All these Scriptures have one MOST IMPORTANT detail in common. They all relate God's definition of "love" to (1) Knowing and (2) Keeping His commandments. All "love" begins here!
The preceding Scripture quotes were placed in the order of their occurrence in the Bible. However, two of these passages directly define love:
1Jn 5:3 For loving God means obeying his commands. Moreover, his commands are not burdensome,
2Jn 1:6 Moreover, love is this: that we should live according to his commands. This is the command, as you people have heard from the beginning; live by it!
The love of God = that we keep His Commandments (1 John 5:3) and Love = walking according to His commandments (2 John 1:6)
Mat 5:17 "Don't think that I have come to abolish the Torah or the Prophets. I have come not to abolish but to complete.
Mat 5:18 Yes indeed! I tell you that until heaven and earth pass away, not so much as a yud or a stroke will pass from the Torah -- not until everything that must happen has happened.
Mat 5:19 So whoever disobeys the least of these mitzvot and teaches others to do so will be called the least in the Kingdom of Heaven. But whoever obeys them and so teaches will be called great in the Kingdom of Heaven.
# 5: How do we enter into eternal life?
Mat 19:16 A man approached Yeshua and said, "Rabbi, what good thing should I do in order to have eternal life?" He said to him,
Mat 19:17 "Why are you asking me about good? There is One who is good! But if you want obtain eternal life, observe the mitzvot."
"The authors of the New Testament were completely unaware that the Church they had fashioned would eventually embrace a pagan deification of a triune deity. Although the worship of a three-part godhead was well known and fervently venerated throughout the Roman Empire and beyond in religious systems such as Hinduism and Mithraism, it was quite distant from the Judaism from which Christianity emerged. However, when the Greek and Roman mind began to dominate the Church, it created a theological disaster from which Christendom has never recovered.
By the end of the fourth century, the doctrine of the Trinity was firmly in place as a central tenet of the Church, and strict monotheism was formally rejected by Vatican councils in Nicea and Constantinople.2
When Christendom adopted a triune godhead from neighboring triune religious systems, it spawned a serious conundrum for post-Nicene Christian apologists. How would they harmonize this new veneration of Jesus as a being who is of the same substance as the Father with a New Testament that portrays Jesus as a separate entity, subordinate to the Father, and created by God? How would they now integrate the teaching of the Trinity with a New Testament that recognized the Father alone as God? In essence, how would Christian apologists merge a first century Christian Bible, which was monotheistic, with a fourth century Church which was not?" Rabbi Tovia Singer
The Challenge: Simply & honestly answer these questions: WITHOUT taking anything out of context,(full context) mistranslating, or imposing a pre-conceived notion. (All chapter and verse numbers are according to Christian bibles.)
To Evangelical Christians, Messianic Jews and Hebrew-Christians to all…:)
Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?
Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when he’s on the cross??????
Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die for his own iniquity” – immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”
When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?
Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)
Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)
Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)
Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
Why does “forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???
Why don’t the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?
Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)
Why is Hebrews 8.9 wrong about what God said in Jer. 31.32?
Why is Hebrews 10.5 wrong about what God said in Psalm 40.6?
Why is 2 Corinthians 3 wrong about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
Why is John 19.37 wrong about what God said in Zech 12.10?
Why are Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?
Why is Romans 10.6-8 wrong about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???
Why is Romans 11:26-27 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?
Why is Matt. 12.21 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out what it really says – “He will not be disheartened or crushed until he has established justice in the earth”?
Why is Matt. 1.12 wrong about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?
Why is Matt. 2.6 wrong about what God said in Micah 5.2?
Why is Luke 4:18-19 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s son?
Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23?
How can it be possible that the holy and inspired men of the New Testament were so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?
Why doesn’t Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)
Why is Jesus wrong in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?
Why does Jesus change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 – declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)
Num 23:19 "God is not a human who lies or a mortal who changes his mind. When he says something, he will do it; when he makes a promise, he will fulfill it.
To Evangelical Christians, Messianic Jews and Hebrew-Christians to all…:)
Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?
Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when he’s on the cross??????
Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die for his own iniquity” – immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”
When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?
Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)
Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)
Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)
Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
Why does “forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???
Why don’t the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?
Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)
Why is Hebrews 8.9 wrong about what God said in Jer. 31.32?
Why is Hebrews 10.5 wrong about what God said in Psalm 40.6?
Why is 2 Corinthians 3 wrong about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
Why is John 19.37 wrong about what God said in Zech 12.10?
Why are Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?
Why is Romans 10.6-8 wrong about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???
Why is Romans 11:26-27 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?
Why is Matt. 12.21 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out what it really says – “He will not be disheartened or crushed until he has established justice in the earth”?
Why is Matt. 1.12 wrong about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?
Why is Matt. 2.6 wrong about what God said in Micah 5.2?
Why is Luke 4:18-19 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s son?
Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23?
How can it be possible that the holy and inspired men of the New Testament were so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?
Why doesn’t Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)
Why is Jesus wrong in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?
Why does Jesus change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 – declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)
"Guide for the Perplexed" the fundamental idea that God is incorporeal, meaning that He assumes no physical form. God is Eternal, above time. He is Infinite, beyond space. He cannot be born, and cannot die. Saying that God assumes human form makes God small, diminishing both His unity and His divinity. As the Torah says: "God is not a mortal" (Numbers 23:19)
Num 23:19 "God is not a human who lies or a mortal who changes his mind. When he says something, he will do it; when he makes a promise, he will fulfill it.
"The
Jerusalem Church which was established by Jesus, and which was guided
by his disciples, did not believe in this teaching of Paul. They did
not believe that faith in Jesus could effectively atone for their
sins.
The
testimony of the Christian scriptures. The 21st chapter in the
book of Acts reports that the normal activities of the members
of the Jerusalem Church included the offering of animals for
the explicit purpose of the expiation of sin. The book of Acts
describes how four members of the Jerusalem Church had
taken a Nazirite vow. This means that they had voluntarily
brought themselves into a situation where they would be
required (by the law of Moses) to bring an animal as a sin
offering.
book of Acts reports that the normal activities of the members
of the Jerusalem Church included the offering of animals for
the explicit purpose of the expiation of sin. The book of Acts
describes how four members of the Jerusalem Church had
taken a Nazirite vow. This means that they had voluntarily
brought themselves into a situation where they would be
required (by the law of Moses) to bring an animal as a sin
offering.
It
is clear that these people saw in the temple
offerings a valid method for the expiation of sin. If they
believed as Paul did, that Jesus died for their sins once and for
all, then there would be no point in bringing a sin offering in
the temple. The fact that the Jerusalem Church still
participated in the temple offerings after Jesus had died, tells
us that they did not see in Jesus’s death an all atoning
sacrifice. These people were not Evangelical Christians."
Read More:
offerings a valid method for the expiation of sin. If they
believed as Paul did, that Jesus died for their sins once and for
all, then there would be no point in bringing a sin offering in
the temple. The fact that the Jerusalem Church still
participated in the temple offerings after Jesus had died, tells
us that they did not see in Jesus’s death an all atoning
sacrifice. These people were not Evangelical Christians."
Read More:
THE TRADITIONAL JEWISH
RESPONSE
TO CHRISTIAN MISSIONARIES byYisroel
C. Blumenthal
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